Originally posted by googlefudge
Sin has nothing to do with morality because the rules for determining what
is classed as a sin have nothing to do with morality.
The rule is simply "things that god/s have prohibited" [or words to that effect,
not trying to make an airtight definition here as I am relying on your own common
sense]
EDIT: and that was perfectly clear in my last post.
I think you need to establish that please God was the
only reason for declaring certain actions sinful.
When they wrote the law against murder, I'm sure they had in mind the side-benefit of having some discouragement of killing, so they could have a more peaceful society. (Yes, I know the society was not very peaceful. They were not very good at keeping their own law. But that's humanity for you. Point is, the motivation was there.)
There are also laws commanding forgiveness of debts of fellow Israelites. That had an obvious benefit to poor Israeli people; it was not only done to please God.
There were laws outlawing the eating of certain unclean animals. At that time, it was necessary not to eat pork, for there was no sure-fire way of removing all the disease, worms, etc. from it. So, that was a motivation, along with pleasing God.
Look, the last thing I want to do is defend OT law. It is very primitive, and it sanctions many things considered grossly immoral today, like slavery and rape. But I think it's going too far to say there was no other motivation behind any of the law but to please God.