Originally posted by @moonbusYes, but this is an interesting answer from gotquestions.org
Daniel 7:13-14 ?
“Question: "What does it mean that Jesus is the Son of Man?"
Answer: Jesus is referred to as the “Son of Man” 88 times in the New Testament. A first meaning of the phrase “Son of Man” is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.” The description “Son of Man” was a Messianic title. Jesus is the One who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase, He was assigning the Son of Man prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. Jesus was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.
A second meaning of the phrase “Son of Man” is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel “son of man” 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). First John 4:2 tells us, “This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God.” Yes, Jesus was the Son of God—He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man—He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase “Son of Man” indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.”
Originally posted by @moonbusOK .. my apologies for that. So many people around here like to ask questions with the aim of trapping someone and dont offer their own opinions.
I don't know what it means. I don't have a case to make here. I'm trying to understand. Maybe someone else would like to weigh in, what "the son of man" means.
Originally posted by @thinkofonePresumably becker hasn't responded to my post because he understands that it refutes his assertion that Jesus claimed to be literally God in John 10:38.
Jesus calls for His followers to become "one" with God as He is "one" with God and utilizes metaphor to depict it. For example:
John 14
20“In that day you will know that I am in My Father, and you in Me, and I in you.
John 15
4“Abide in Me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself unless it abides in the vine, so neither can you ...[text shortened]... For example:
Matthew 5
9“Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God.
John 10:38 is no more a claim by Jesus to be literally God than the passages I cited are claims that Jesus is calling for His followers to become literally God / Jesus.
Originally posted by @thinkofoneYou’re criticizing someone for not responding to a post? You? That’s hilarious.
Presumably becker hasn't responded to my post because he understands that it refutes his assertion that Jesus claimed to be literally God in John 10:38. It is no more a claim to be literally God than the passages I cited are claims that Jesus is calling for His followers to become literally God / Jesus.
Originally posted by @romans1009I refuted becker's claim.
You’re criticizing someone for not responding to a post? You? That’s hilarious.
Whether or not he responds to that refutation is up to him.
Originally posted by @thinkofone“All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.”
Presumably becker hasn't responded to my post because he understands that it refutes his assertion that Jesus claimed to be literally God in John 10:38.
John 10:38 is no more a claim by Jesus to be literally God than the passages I cited are claims that Jesus is calling for His followers to become literally God / Jesus.
(Matthew 11:27)
Originally posted by @thinkofoneYou didn’t refute Jack.
I refuted becker's claim.
Whether or not he responds to that refutation is up to him.
And hiw many posts challenging your false doctrines have you ignored?
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Originally posted by @romans1009John 10:38 is no more a claim by Jesus to be literally God than the passages I cited on page one are claims that Jesus is calling for His followers to become literally God or Jesus.
You didn’t refute Jack.
And hiw many posts challenging your false doctrines have you ignored?
Originally posted by @thinkofoneDo you believe that God is ?
John 10:38 is no more a claim by Jesus to be literally God than the passages I cited on page one are claims that Jesus is calling for His followers to become literally God / Jesus.
Are you afraid of man ?
Confess where you stand on the existence of God.
Originally posted by @sonshipI’ve suspected ToO is an atheist trolling Christians for quite a while.
Do you believe that God is ?
Are you afraid of man ?
Confess where you stand on the existence of God.
Too much of what he professes to believe is so utterly unBiblical and illogical that it only makes sense if he is an atheist who believes Jesus was only a man and wise teacher.
Originally posted by @thinkofone“All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.”
John 10:38 is no more a claim by Jesus to be literally God than the passages I cited on page one are claims that Jesus is calling for His followers to become literally God or Jesus.
(Matthew 11:27)
Originally posted by @romans1009If you have a point, plainly state it.
“All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.”
(Matthew 11:27)