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Spirituality

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F

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
permitted? as among Gods servants? or among the populace as a whole?
Permitted in the same way as it was permitted by your version of God in OT times?

rc

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17 Jan 13
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Originally posted by FMF
Permitted in the same way as it was permitted by your version of God in OT times?
We are no longer under the mandates of the Law, it was specific to Jewish people, we are Christians. Gods Laws were only binding upon Jews, therefore your designation of slavery as practised by others, i.e, the Romans has no legitimacy here, therefore you need to be specific where you re talking of slavery, for its not slavery in any generic sense.

F

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
We are no longer under the mandates of the Law, it was specific to Jewish people, we are Christians.
The law applied to the followers of your version of God but it no longer applies to His followers. That is "change".

F

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17 Jan 13
1 edit

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Gods Laws were only binding upon Jews, therefore your designation of slavery as practised by others, i.e, the Romans has no legitimacy here, therefore you need to be specific where you re talking of slavery, for its not slavery in any generic sense.
Are followers of your God permitted to have slaves?

rc

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by FMF
The law applied to the followers of your version of God but it no longer applies to His followers. That is "change".
no, its the end of one agreement and the beginning of another.

rc

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2 edits

Originally posted by FMF
Are followers of your God permitted to have slaves?
I have provided the Bibles viewpoint you may come to your own conclusions. Certainly there were first century Christians who owned slaves. Its rather unlikely now as social conditions have changed, as pointed out in the article that I provided.

F

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
no, its the end of one agreement and the beginning of another.
It is "change". Change in the "law" that applies to His followers, change in several of the "principles" that underpinned them, and a move from an Old to a New Covenant is clearly a change in His "way" too. galveston75's claim that these things never change is nonsense.

rc

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by FMF
It is "change". Change in the "law" that applies to His followers, change in several of the "principles" that underpinned them, and a move from an Old to a New Covenant is clearly a change in His "way" too. galveston75's claim that these things never change is nonsense.
the Law did not change it was fulfilled, your assertions to the contrary are nonsense.

F

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Certainly there were first century Christians who owned slaves. Its rather unlikely now as social conditions have changed, as pointed out in the article that I provided.
You often talk about first century Christians as a benchmark for your own practice of Christianity. How does it apply to slavery? Social conditions aside, are you, as a follower of your God, permitted to have slaves in the same way as followers like you were permitted to own them in OT times and in first century times?

F

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the Law did not change it was fulfilled, your assertions to the contrary are nonsense.
Were first century Christians permitted to own slaves by the Christian God?

rc

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by FMF
You often talk about first century Christians as a benchmark for your own practice of Christianity. How does it apply to slavery? Social conditions aside, are you, as a follower of your God, permitted to have slaves in the same way as followers like you were permitted to own them in OT times and in first century times?
Slavery as far as i am aware is outlawed in the UK, as a Christian, one would of course be compelled to subject oneself to the superior authorities (governments), therefore here it would be quite impossible to own a slave. Where does one buy a salve, ebay? amazon? the local slave market?

rc

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by FMF
Were first century Christians permitted to own slaves by the Christian God?
yes, i have already stated that as did the article that i posted.

F

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Slavery as far as i am aware is outlawed in the UK, as a Christian, one would of course be compelled to subject oneself to the superior authorities (governments), therefore here it would be quite impossible to own a slave.
This is an answer to a different question - something along of the lines of 'is slavery legal in the U.K.?' I am asking you are you permitted to own slaves by the version of God you follow?

F

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
yes, i have already stated that as did the article that i posted.
OK, so you believe first century Christians were permitted by God to own slaves. What about eighteenth century Christians? Were they permitted by God to own slaves?

rc

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17 Jan 13

Originally posted by FMF
This is an answer to a different question - something along of the lines of 'is slavery legal in the U.K.?' I am asking you are you permitted to own slaves by the version of God you follow?
I have already told you i am under duress to observe the laws of the UK therefore it is not permitted for me, as a Christian living here to own a slave.