Originally posted by Palynkahave i said that anywhere in this thread?
You think we should decide our penal system based on the reaction of those blinded by rage?
i just don't think 'pity' is not a suitable word for a murderer, i pity the children left without a father/mother etc. i'm not going to go around pitying people who commit murder, whatever illness they may or may not have.
Originally posted by trev33Just checking.
have i said that anywhere in this thread?
i just don't think 'pity' is not a suitable word for a murderer, i pity the children left without a father/mother etc. i'm not going to go around pitying people who commit murder, whatever illness they may or may not have.
Nobody says you have to pity one or the other, or even to the same degree. A person with such an illness is barred from the chance of having a normal life, even before they committed murder. There's something to pity about that, in my opinion.
Originally posted by Palynkaso you feel that everyone who commits murder has some sort of illness?
Just checking.
Nobody says you have to pity one or the other, or even to the same degree. A person with such an illness is barred from the chance of having a normal life, even before they committed murder. There's something to pity about that, in my opinion.
Originally posted by trev33Yes. Obviously there's a lot of subcases to be discussed, but I think there is a world of difference between the mobster who kills for profit and the one who kills due to some psychotic urge.
i thought so... which leads me to my next question, should murderers with an illness be treated differently than those without as far as sentencing gos and if so how so.
Purely in terms of length, it could go both ways. For example, if the latter depends on his reaction to psychological treatment, then release might even never happen.
Originally posted by Palynkaand do you think said psychological treatment should be conducted in a jail or in another institution specially designed to treat these people? if the latter would you be happy to see a person freed after they've been 'cured' but not necessarily served the same amount of time than say the mobster has for his crime. assuming they were both similar murder charges.
Yes. Obviously there's a lot of subcases to be discussed, but I think there is a world of difference between the mobster who kills for profit and the one who kills due to some psychotic urge.
Purely in terms of length, it could go both ways. For example, if the latter depends on his reaction to psychological treatment, then release might even never happen.