Originally posted by divegeester
Rather than being merely "one of the foremost princes," Jesus Christ is "Lord of lords and King of kings" (Rev. 17:14, NWT) and is "far above every government and authority and power and lordship and every name named, not only in this system of things, but also in that to come" (Ephesians 1:21, NWT).
Unlike "Michael who did not dare condemn the Devil ...[text shortened]... nstead of “worship him".
Author: David A. Reed, Ex-Jehovah's Witness elder.
ex witness, haha, whats he doing now, wearing an orange smock having shaved his
head and pinging a triangle? I told you I am interested in what can be established
scripturally not the opinions of disgruntled apostates whom we deem unworthy and
kick out of our awesome organisation. I told you already and bbar to his credit has
acknowledged the discrepancies in the use of the term 'worship', in translation. Its
impossible to discuss it with you because you either do not know or are unwilling to
look at the Greek terms, nor will you ever know unless you do, your position therefore
is always one of religious bias and preconception, always. Why remonstrate with
someone who is not open minded enough to consider that yes they may be
mistaken, or yes, there are other points of view.
you acknowledge in Isaiah that Christ is prince of peace, yet deny it that he could
possibly be a foremost prince, why is that? because of your dogmatic approach
perhaps. It has already been asserted that worship belongs to no one but the
father, your last argument then is utter straw, because we do not hold that Christ is
the father, why are you applying arguments to us on the basis of what you profess,
rather than what we do, answer, because you have a one dimensional approach to
scripture, that is why.
if you want to discuss the term do obeisance and the resulting Greek terms then do
so, there was a plethora of Greek terms given each one with distinct meanings. It
is of note that the translators of Christendom acknowledge that doing obeisance
means bowing down or prostrating oneself, but suddenly when it comes to Christ it
means worship, why? simply because they have a religious bias and a preconceived
idea as to the nature of Christ, how else shall you explain their inconsistent use of
the term where in one instance it means prostrating oneself and when it comes to
Christ it suddenly becomes and act of worship!!! if you know anything about it as
you claim, then explain it to the forum, why have they done so?