Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-duke
Why did a perfect human succumb to temptation?
If Adam's perfection was simply as a result of being born free of sin, how is that any different from every baby born today?
Explain.
How did Christ succumb to temptation?
Did Jesus Christ succomb to temptation by crying out
"My God, My God Why have You forsaken Me?"
You are really scrapping the very bottom of the barrel for accusations against a Perfect Son of God.
To be in perplexity is not succombing to temptation.
To be in an agony and wanting to cry out is not succombing to temptation.
Had He cursed His Father in rage, that would have been for Him to succumb to temptation. To cry out
"Why?" when all He had known for eternity is oneness with the Father ... I don't count that as sinning or giving way to unbelief.
"Him who did not know sin He made sin on our behalf that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." (2 Cor. 5:21)
Believe He was made sin for you and I. But He knew no sin -
ever. And no guile was ever found in His mouth.
" ... Christ also suffered on your behalf, leaving you a model that you should follow in His steps; Who did no sin, nor was guile found in His mouth." ( 1 Pet. 2:21,22)
In fact Satan was always trying with his demons and evil angels to get Jesus to be unbelieving. Even on the cross they exerted effort to make Him fail to be faithful. The Bible says that the enemies were stripped off, peeled off, stripped away from Him as He obeyed His Father to the uttermost. And openly their defeat was manifested to the world.
" Stripping off the rulers and the authorities, He made a display of them openly, triumphing over them in it." (Col. 2:15)
Even in His crying out at being your sin bearer that you might be justified before God, He triumphed and overcame in His terrible ordeal. He died a
victorious death. And He rose in eternal vindication - God approved of His act and seals its efficacy for ever.