Originally posted by @rajk999 Born without genitals.
From my earlier post:
'But Jesus mentions a third category — eunuchs who were born that way. Some might argue that Jesus was referring to males born without testicles, but this would be extremely rare. Moreover, this interpretation ignores how the term “born eunuchs” was used in other literature of the time.
In the ancient world, including ancient Jewish culture (as reflected in the Talmud), “natural” or “born” eunuchs were not associated with missing testicles. Rather, they were associated with stereotypically effeminate characteristics and behavior (just like modern gay men), and were thought by Rabbi Eliezer to be subject to “cure” (just like modern gays). Moreover, as we have also seen, eunuchs were commonly associated with homosexual desire.'
Originally posted by @divegeester I can’t, but a lack of explaintion isn’t necessarily a void to be filled with a presumption which doesn’t fit with wider scripture.
It could, of course, simply be an indication that biblical scripture has no cohesion and is riddled with irreconcilable contradictions.
'But Jesus mentions a third category — eunuchs who were born that way. Some might argue that Jesus was referring to males born without testicles, but this would be extremely rare. Moreover, this interpretation ignores how the term “born eunuchs” was used in other literature of the time.
In the ancient world, including an ...[text shortened]... gays). Moreover, as we have also seen, eunuchs were commonly associated with homosexual desire.'
Either way nothing in the explanation of the early Jewish culture which supports the idea that a life of homosexuality is not a sin.
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-duke Can you control your straightness?
Check...
You tell me. Do you really think that the Greeks and Spartans were all genetically inclined to homosexual behavior?
And what of bisexuals? Are the incapable of being monogamous?
Personally, I think that a small percentage of people are inclined towards being homosexual, but for many, like the Greeks, it is socially mediated when normalized
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-duke It could, of course, simply be an indication that biblical scripture has no cohesion and is riddled with irreconcilable contradictions.
Your premise may hold discussion value, but this is not an example of it.
Originally posted by @whodey You tell me. Do you really think that the Greeks and Spartans were all genetically inclined to homosexual behavior?
And what of bisexuals? Are the incapable of being monogamous?
Personally, I think that a small percentage of people are inclined towards being homosexual, but for many, like the Greeks, it is socially mediated when normalized
Why would a bisexual be any less capable of monogamy than a heterosexual? Are you daft enough to believe that a bisexual requires 2 partners on the go at the same time?
And heads up sir, this ain't ancient Greece or Sparta. (That comparison is tired and predictable).
Originally posted by @divegeester I can’t, but a lack of explaintion isn’t necessarily a void to be filled with a presumption which doesn’t fit with wider scripture.
If you were to ask me to explain how everything came into existence, I could equally respond:
'I can't, but a lack of explanation isn’t necessarily a void to be filled with a presumption.'