god: the lost years

Originally posted by finnegan
The word became flesh is not from Mosaic traditions but is a New Testament innovation borrowed from Greek philosophy.

Indeed, extra Biblical neo platonic paganism!

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
yes

yes

Why so long ? Could you please shorten that answer ?

Originally posted by sonship

yes

Why so long ? Could you please shorten that answer ?

k

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
why? can you cite a single example where God arbitrarily executed divine justice upon anyone without giving them prior warning and seeking their repentance? No neither can I.

If a human being carried out some of the exact same acts as God did in the OT, and even if the acts that prompted this reaction were immoral, and he gave repeated warnings and asked the victims to repent in advance to save themselves, you would call that human a psychotic mass murderer. Well, I hope you would.

So it is not an unreasonable description from a non-theist perspective to apply to the God of the OT.

Jesus, by and large, seems a much nicer bloke, but he is clearly incompatible with the OT God, and is why you needed people to come up with ever more artful reasons to explain away the contradiction.

Originally posted by Paul Dirac II
Marcion heresy, I say.
😲

A.D. 144, astute.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Indeed, extra Biblical neo platonic paganism!

So because John was doing apologetics towards some Greek philosophically enfluenced readers, telling them that the Logos became flesh you think God did not inspire the apostle to write what He did ?

You correct the Holy Spirit then and inform the one Who inspires the words of Scripture that the apostle should not have written "and the Word became flesh" ?

Originally posted by sonship
He did not change at all in character.
[b]Malachi 3:6 - For I, Jehovah, do not change ..."

He went through a process of two becomings.

1.) The Word became flesh.

2.) The last Adam became a life giving Spirit.

He went through the process of being in a form to dispense Himself into man.[/b]

Thumbs Up.

Originally posted by stellspalfie
then the j-man isnt as nice as i thought he was. he's as nuts as his psychotic, mass murdering old-man.

... rant on.

Originally posted by Rank outsider
If a human being carried out some of the exact same acts as God did in the OT, and even if the acts that prompted this reaction were immoral, and he gave repeated warnings and asked the victims to repent in advance to save themselves, you would call that human a psychotic mass murderer. Well, I hope you would.

So it is not an unreasonable descriptio ...[text shortened]... hy you needed people to come up with ever more artful reasons to explain away the contradiction.

Jesus, by and large, seems a much nicer bloke, but he is clearly incompatible with the OT God, and is why you needed people to come up with ever more artful reasons to explain away the contradiction.

If God did not reveal His just hatred for sins in the Old Testament we would not have the backround to appreciate that Christ came and bore the judgment for the world's sins.

It is because the harsh judgment of sins is manifested in many Old Testament records which makes Christ's redemptive death on the sinner's behalf so significant.

Besides, your so called "much nicer bloke" utters much of the very same things in the Gospels proving that God's attitude had not changed in His vehemence against unrighteousness.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
k

:-)

Originally posted by Grampy Bobby
Thumbs Up.

I've waited years for someone here to appreciate that.

God has gone through a kind of process to get into man.

Originally posted by Rank outsider
If a human being carried out some of the exact same acts as God did in the OT, and even if the acts that prompted this reaction were immoral, and he gave repeated warnings and asked the victims to repent in advance to save themselves, you would call that human a psychotic mass murderer. Well, I hope you would.

So it is not an unreasonable descriptio ...[text shortened]... hy you needed people to come up with ever more artful reasons to explain away the contradiction.

we are not talking of human beings, we are talking of a divine entity, with absolute knowledge, able to discern the thoughts and intentions of the heart, with infinite wisdom and attributes in perfect harmony.

Christ was a Hebrew, he upheld the Mosaic Law and instructed others to do likewise. He prophesied further divine judgement which if carried out would dwarf anything prior, a great tribulation.

I see no contradiction.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
why? can you cite a single example where God arbitrarily executed divine justice upon anyone without giving them prior warning and seeking their repentance? No neither can I.

Where does God in the Bible warn every human being on earth about the flood?

Originally posted by Rank outsider
Where does God in the Bible warn every human being on earth about the flood?

Noah was a preacher of righteousness for forty years, he built an ark, four stories high and about the same length and breadth as a soccer field! Clearly the worlds communities were much smaller then and it takes no great leap of the imagination that people everywhere would have heard of it.

Originally posted by Grampy Bobby
:-)

😀 minimalists of the world unite against the tyranny of extensive texts!