20 Aug '10 23:04>1 edit
Originally posted by Lord SharkOkay, well in light of Conrau K's contributions, it seems that I probably WAS confused when I stated the following:
To be honest, I keep flipping from one view to the other, like looking at a Necker Cube.
My counter though is that to say it is necessary that God knows you will A might be question begging. Necessarily god knows what you will do, but if under libertarian free will this is your choice, then the content of god's knowledge is contingent on your ch ...[text shortened]... [b]that god knows is necessary but what god knows is contingent.
Does that help?[/b]
If it is necessary that God knows what I will do; and (suppose) in fact I will end up doing A; then isn't that the same as its being necessary that God knows I will do A? (Perhaps that is the point at which I am confused.)
I think what you have brought up is an issue with ferreting out what exactly follows from the infallibility condition. In the argument proposed by bbarr (in the other thread you linked), I believe his argument is quite sound under the interpretation of infallbility employed there. (Relatedly, I believe there is no allowance for your counter under a construal where infallibility entails that it is necessary that G knows the truth value of all propositions; that much seems relatively clear to me from transfer of necessity and related arguments.) But, perhaps under the (weaker) construal of infallibility that you and Conrau K have roughly outlined here, I can see why we should doubt that Premise 4) follows from the condition of infallibility. I will have to give it some more thought. Thanks,