15 Mar '05 00:05>
Originally posted by kirksey957I welcome the musical avatar of pcaspian. I also add this :
Nyxie, you have fallen victim to the musical avatars. Pcaspian is trying to remove any latent homosexual feelings he has by using my avatar. Please join me in wishing him well.
In 1 Samuel 18:20-21 "Now Saul's daughter Michal was in love with David,and when they told Saul about it, he was pleased. 'I will give her to him',he thought, 'so that she may be a snare to him and so that the hand of the Philistines may be against him .Thou shalt this day be my son-in-law, in the one of the twain."
Saul's belief was that David would be so distracted by a wife that he would not be an effective fighter and would be killed by the Philistines. He offered first his daughter Merab, but that was rejected, presumably by her. Then he offered Michal.
The KJV preserves the original text in its clearest form; it implies that David would become Saul's son-in-law through "one of the twain." "Twain" means "two", so the verse seems to refer to one of Saul's two daughters. Unfortunately, this is a mistranslation. The phrase "the one of" does not exist in Hebrew originally. The words are shown in italics in the King James Version; which is an admission by the translators that they made the words up. Thus, if the KJV translators had been truly honest, they would have written: "Thou shalt this day be my son-in-law, in the twain." In modern English, this might be written: "Today, you are son-in-law with two of my children" That would refer to both his son Jonathan and his daughter Michal since his daughter Merab did not have a relationship with David. The Hebrew original text would appear to recognize David and Jonathan's homosexual relationship as equivalent to David and Michal's heterosexual marriage. So it is possible that there is Biblical approval of same-sex marriage.
Nyxie
references : http://members.aol.com/gunnyding/relationships/relationships.htm