1. Joined
    01 Oct '04
    Moves
    12095
    02 Sep '06 20:22
    Originally posted by David C
    I agree totally, deej. However, since Allah's Mercy is only granted to those who believe in The Great Prophet (May He Live Forever!), looks like you and I are headed for the same place. Shall we meet for some OTB once we get there? I'll bet there a nice outdoor cafe with a view of the Lake.
    In order for your words to have any meaning to me, you have to demonstrate to me why the Quar'an is true and the Bible is false.

    I could easily demonstrate why I believe the Bible and not the Quar'an.
  2. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
    BWA Soldier
    Tha Brotha Hood
    Joined
    13 Dec '04
    Moves
    49088
    02 Sep '06 20:22
    Originally posted by dj2becker
    Are you not assuming that there is only one key?
    The metaphor doesn't make a lick of sense if the door is locked from the inside yet the people on the inside cannot unlock the door.
  3. DonationPawnokeyhole
    Krackpot Kibitzer
    Right behind you...
    Joined
    27 Apr '02
    Moves
    16879
    02 Sep '06 20:22
    Originally posted by dj2becker
    [b] How can a Good God send people to hell?

    I have often heard this question asked.

    The problem is that this question assumes that God sends people to hell against their will. But this is not the case. God desires everyone to be saved. (2 Peter 3:9). Those who are not saved do not will to be saved. Jesus said, "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you who ki ...[text shortened]... perience the great divorce when God says to them, "Thy will be done!"[/b]
    Is God punishing people, by putting them in hell against their will, or are they punishing themselves, by putting themselves voluntarily in hell?
  4. Joined
    01 Oct '04
    Moves
    12095
    02 Sep '06 20:32
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    The metaphor doesn't make a lick of sense if the door is locked from the inside yet the people on the inside cannot unlock the door.
    That would be assuming that they are the only beings on the inside.

    My Bible tells me that hell was origionally prepared for the Devil and his angels.

    They might actually want some company and "deprive the entrants of their keys" once they have "locked themselves in" as it were.
  5. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
    BWA Soldier
    Tha Brotha Hood
    Joined
    13 Dec '04
    Moves
    49088
    02 Sep '06 20:38
    Originally posted by dj2becker
    That would be assuming that they are the only beings on the inside.

    My Bible tells me that hell was origionally prepared for the Devil and his angels.

    They might actually want some company and "deprive the entrants of their keys" once they have "locked themselves in" as it were.
    Why should it be too late for a soul to repent after death?
  6. Joined
    01 Oct '04
    Moves
    12095
    02 Sep '06 20:54
    Originally posted by Pawnokeyhole
    Is God punishing people, by putting them in hell against their will, or are they punishing themselves, by putting themselves voluntarily in hell?
    I believe the answer lies in God's love and his justice.

    God is just and must punnish sin. But He is also loving and must forgive sin. God is both absolutely just and unconditionally loving. Each attribute complements the other. God is "justly holy" and "holy just." That is, his justice is administered in love, and his love is distributed justly.

    The perfect example of how God's love and justice kiss is in the cross. In his love, God sent his Son to pay the penalty for our sins so that his justice could be satisfied and his love released. For "the wages of sin is death. So when Christ died for our sins the Just suffered for the unjust that he might bring us to God. "God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God" (2Cor 5:21)

    God's justice demands that sin be punnished, but his love compels him to save sinners. So by Christ's death on the cross, his justice is satisfied and his love released. God is like a judge who, after passing out the punnishment for the guilty defendant, laid aside his robe, stood alongside the convicted, and paid the fine for him. Jesus did the same for us on Calvary.

    A person that goes to hell is one who rejects God's love and meets up with his justice.
  7. DonationPawnokeyhole
    Krackpot Kibitzer
    Right behind you...
    Joined
    27 Apr '02
    Moves
    16879
    02 Sep '06 20:59
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    Why should it be too late for a soul to repent after death?
    May I, playing devil's (or God's) advocate, suggest as reason?

    After death, it would become obvious that being with God was highly desirable, and being without him highly undesirable. Thus, there would be little room for loving God freely, what He most desires: the contingencies for obeying Him would be obvious.

    However, before death, it would not yet be obvious that being with God is highly desirable, and being without him highly undesirable. Hence, there would be plenty of room to love him freely.

    So, we get a limited time opportunity during which to freely demonstrate our love for Him. If we don't, we get royally screwed; but if we do, we get to spend eternity with people like RBHILL.
  8. Joined
    01 Oct '04
    Moves
    12095
    02 Sep '06 21:00
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    Why should it be too late for a soul to repent after death?
    As your question assumes a moral law, you are automatically assuming a moral lawgiver. As I believe God is the moral lawgiver, I take his word for it.

    The Bible says that it is appointed unto Man once to die and thereafter the Judgement.
  9. DonationPawnokeyhole
    Krackpot Kibitzer
    Right behind you...
    Joined
    27 Apr '02
    Moves
    16879
    02 Sep '06 21:02
    Originally posted by dj2becker
    I believe the answer lies in God's love and his justice.

    God is just and must punnish sin. But He is also loving and must forgive sin. God is both absolutely just and unconditionally loving. Each attribute complements the other. God is "justly holy" and "holy just." That is, his justice is administered in love, and his love is distributed justly.

    The ...[text shortened]... erson that goes to hell is one who rejects God's love and meets up with his justice.
    I don't think X can forgive Y for doing Z and then punish Y for doing Z. That makes no sense.
  10. DonationPawnokeyhole
    Krackpot Kibitzer
    Right behind you...
    Joined
    27 Apr '02
    Moves
    16879
    02 Sep '06 21:042 edits
    Originally posted by dj2becker
    As your question assumes a moral law, you are automatically assuming a moral lawgiver. As I believe God is the moral lawgiver, I take his word for it.

    The Bible says that it is appointed unto Man once to die and thereafter the Judgement.
    Stating that God arranged matters thus does is not the same as stating a moral reason for why he arranged matter thus.

    Please make an effort to think of a moral reason God might have had for making it impossible for a soul to repent after death.
  11. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
    BWA Soldier
    Tha Brotha Hood
    Joined
    13 Dec '04
    Moves
    49088
    02 Sep '06 21:04
    Ok, I think I've had my fill of nonsense for the day.
  12. DonationPawnokeyhole
    Krackpot Kibitzer
    Right behind you...
    Joined
    27 Apr '02
    Moves
    16879
    02 Sep '06 21:06
    Originally posted by dj2becker
    I believe the answer lies in God's love and his justice.

    God is just and must punnish sin. But He is also loving and must forgive sin. God is both absolutely just and unconditionally loving. Each attribute complements the other. God is "justly holy" and "holy just." That is, his justice is administered in love, and his love is distributed justly.

    The ...[text shortened]... erson that goes to hell is one who rejects God's love and meets up with his justice.
    Could you just pick one of the two options I listed, or suggest another?
  13. Joined
    01 Oct '04
    Moves
    12095
    02 Sep '06 21:08
    Originally posted by Pawnokeyhole
    I don't think X can forgive Y for doing Z and then punish Y for doing Z. That makes no sense.
    It will obviously not make sense if you do not define X,Y and Z.
  14. Joined
    06 Jul '06
    Moves
    2926
    02 Sep '06 21:13
    this isnt algebra
  15. DonationPawnokeyhole
    Krackpot Kibitzer
    Right behind you...
    Joined
    27 Apr '02
    Moves
    16879
    02 Sep '06 21:20
    Originally posted by dj2becker
    It will obviously not make sense if you do not define X,Y and Z.
    Yes it does. The point holds for all non-nonsensical X, Y, and Z.

    If you don't think so, give me one counterexample of a person forgiving someone for doing something and then going on to punish them for doing something.

    Anybody who claims that this is possible is similarly not familiar with the everyday meaning of the words "forgive" and "punish".
Back to Top

Cookies help us deliver our Services. By using our Services or clicking I agree, you agree to our use of cookies. Learn More.I Agree