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Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeRomans 3:21
Are you denying Gen:6:9 described Noah as righteous?!
But now, apart from the Law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets. And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no distinction, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God...
Originally posted by @dj2beckerYou have merely highlighted the inconsistency of the bible.
Romans 3:21
But now, apart from the Law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets. And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no distinction, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God...
Well done.
Originally posted by @dj2beckerRighteousness by following the Law is the Old Testament while righteousness by Jesus is NT.
Romans 3:21
But now, apart from the Law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets. And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no distinction, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God...
In both you can't be righteous without love, as defined in the Bible.
Raj gets confused on this point because Paul discusses both.
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Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeMore like I've highlighted your and Raj's inconsistent understanding of the Bible.
You have merely highlighted the inconsistency of the bible.
Well done.
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Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeActually it is your views that are not lining up to scripture that is being highlighted. Trust me if you draw a line by your views, and it is disagreeing with the level used, your wrong not the level. I don't care how right you think you are
You have merely highlighted the inconsistency of the bible.
Well done.
Originally posted by @kellyjayHow can referencing a biblical passage not be lining up with scripture?
Actually it is your views that are not lining up to scripture that is being highlighted. Trust me if you draw a line by your views, and it is disagreeing with the level used, your wrong not the level. I don't care how right you think you are
It was said no man was righteous. I gave a verse that clearly disputes this, and could provide others.
Originally posted by @eladarPaul discusses all the variations and therefore all are correct.
Righteousness by following the Law is the Old Testament while righteousness by Jesus is NT.
In both you can't be righteous without love, as defined in the Bible.
Raj gets confused on this point because Paul discusses both.
A man can enter the Kingdom of God through faith in Christ alone.
Jews can enter the Kingdom of God through following the works of the law of Moses
Gentiles can enter the Kingdom of God by following their conscience [the works of the law written in their hearts] which guides them to do good works and live righteously.
Nobody however enters the Kingdom of God by living sinful lives.
God / Christ will judge all people.
Originally posted by @rajk999You got part of that right, but thr undefinrd term of sinful life keeps things ambiguous.
Paul discusses all the variations and therefore all are correct.
A man can enter the Kingdom of God through faith in Christ alone.
Jews can enter the Kingdom of God through following the works of the law of Moses
Gentiles can enter the Kingdom of God by following their conscience [the works of the law written in their hearts] which guides them to do go ...[text shortened]... y however enters the Kingdom of God by living sinful lives.
God / Christ will judge all people.
Originally posted by @eladarIf sin is ambiguous to you then you have a problem. I cannot help you.
You got part of that right, but thr undefinrd term of sinful life keeps things ambiguous.
Matt 5, 6 and 7, Jesus lectured at great detail on the subject.
Read that or Pray and ask God for help in that regard.
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Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeRead up a little on 'imputed righteousness'.
How can referencing a biblical passage not be lining up with scripture?
It was said no man was righteous. I gave a verse that clearly disputes this, and could provide others.
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Originally posted by @dj2beckerRead up a little. (Full stop).
Read up a little on 'imputed righteousness'.
Maybe start with N.T Wright:
'The "righteousness of God", referring to God's (the judge's) faithfulness to the covenant relationship, can be neither imputed nor imparted to anybody but refers only to his role as judge. "Righteousness from God" is roughly equivalent to "vindication", meaning that God is pronouncing that particular party to be correct/vindicated/righteous/acquitted in their dispute with the other party. The dispute in question in Christian theology is between those of faith (in God's promises: the covenant, the Messiah), and "the wicked," meaning everyone else. Paul posited that the people of such faith are vindicated when Messiah returns, being declared "righteous" (or in other words, vindicated for their stance), which is exactly the meaning of the Biblical term "justified."
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeNone are except God makes righteous.
How can referencing a biblical passage not be lining up with scripture?
It was said no man was righteous. I gave a verse that clearly disputes this, and could provide others.
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Originally posted by @rajk999It is ambiguous for all.
If sin is ambiguous to you then you have a problem. I cannot help you.
Matt 5, 6 and 7, Jesus lectured at great detail on the subject.
Read that or Pray and ask God for help in that regard.
Without a good definition your words are meaningless.
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Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeRighteous among man the isn't the same thing as before God, walking faithfully as a man, isn't saying he was sinless as Christ either.
"This is the account of Noah and his family. Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked faithfully with God." Gen:6:9
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