04 Oct 15
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIf the Christian man, say, refuses to abstain, and submits his Christian wife to sex against her will, would you consider it to be rape?
I think the Christian marital vows provided a provision for mutual abstinence, beyond that I cannot say.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI don't think women being raped is an appropriate topic for your "jovial fellow frolicking across cyber space" act.
we know how you hate jovial fellows frolicking across cyber space, those gelid tentacles of yours must be itching to squeeze the humanity from them😵
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by FMFyes i have no idea I can only comment on a Christian perspective, i see that you have ignored my question, i will repeat it for you again.
Are you referring to some kind of legal agreement that the "contractual parties" have signed up to? I thought you were talking about "Christian marriage" and "Christian principles", and the none-existence of "marital rape".
I remember a rather interesting debate in the house of Lords or commons that i was following on radio 4, one of the MPs/Lords gave a speech in which he detailed a scenario whereby someones wife was initially unwilling but was persuaded with some kind words and eventually acquiesced to have sex with the words, 'i suppose so' were those words, does such an act in your opinion constitute a rape? the lady being unwilling?
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by robbie carrobieDoes this mean you find it acceptable for a man to physically force his wife to have sex with him?
This one here
This actually in retrospect is a good point. A Christian wife and husband have agreed relinquish authority over there own bodies, this is a Christian principle. Of course its not to be taken in isolation and like other principles have a bearing. If a husband abides by the principle to love and cherish his wife as he does his own fles ...[text shortened]... called marital due when sh is either unwilling or unable to consent, for this would be unloving.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI thought I made it very clear. We are living according to Christian principles, but she has refused to have sex with me on this one occasion, as she has the flu. She has therefore not consented to having sex with me.
It could be construed as rape yes but again i have no idea what she may have consented to.
If I force myself upon her, is the Christian view that this is rape?
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by Rank outsiderYour scenario is ridiculous, if you were living by Christian principles you would not force yourself upon her. I thought I made this clear?
I thought I made it very clear. We are living according to Christian principles, but she has refused to have sex with me on this one occasion, as she has the flu. She has therefore not consented to having sex with me.
If I force myself upon her, is the Christian view that this is rape?
04 Oct 15
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIt's my question you you. It requires a yes or a no answer, and you refusing to answer is scarily fascinating.
I don't know where you got that from it certainly isn't implied in the text, are you ill? or do you simply like to make stuff up?
Do you find it acceptable for a man to physically force his wife to have sex with him?