Originally posted by KaboooombaYou said:
non-meritorious faith is sans work. which means?... in regards to who?
"if you believe in Jesus then your motives 'which God judges' would have been to live your life acceptable to Jesus."
Non-meritorious faith in Christ is the issue in salvation, not how one lives one's life.
Originally posted by no1marauderAs ivanhoe pointed out, his context showed he was talking about the Virgin Birth, not the (or any) Immaculate Conception.
Perhaps you should avoid such insufferable snotnosery; while technically you are correct, his context showed he was referring to Jesus' conception. You can't expect everyone on Planet Earth to make the hair splitting distinctions that the RCC does. Also if you want to be hypertechnical, if he was referring to THE Immaculate Conception he would have capit ...[text shortened]... ? Since Jesus was conceived without Original Sin his was an "immaculate conception" as well.
In any case, the doctrine of the IC is not that Mary was conceived without Original Sin, but that she "was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin"*. With Christ, there was no need to "preserve" Him from anything; it's simply impossible for Him to have been conceived with original sin. So, His conception is not "immaculate" in the sense Mary's is, though it is sinless.
Christ's conception is referred to as the "miraculous conception".
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* http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07674d.htm
Originally posted by FreakyKBHPersonally, I think all faith in Jesus is non-meritorious, but there you go...
You said:
"if you believe in Jesus then your motives 'which God judges' would have been to live your life acceptable to Jesus."
Non-meritorious faith in Christ is the issue in salvation, not how one lives one's life.
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Originally posted by FreakyKBHWhy don't all of God's children receive such immaculate conception? It seems like the decent thing for God to do, if it is in his power.
The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.
http://www.catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp
Originally posted by DoctorScribbles1. Because not every person has to provide physical flesh to constitute the Son of God.
Why don't all of God's children receive such immaculate conception? It seems like the decent thing for God to do, if it is in his power.
2. Because (I think) the Immaculate Conception was conditional on Mary's free acceptance of her role in salvation history (the 'fiat'😉.
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Originally posted by lucifershammerI have eliminated (2) from the list of relevant reasons. It's not even coherent. How could her manner of coming into existence depend on a decision she made after coming into existence?
See point (2).
Your list is now empty.
Please give some more reasons why God does not grant us all immaculate conception.