Folks notice that man's ability to abuse and twist God's word for his own selfish sin is manifested early. We see it in Genesis.
God gave instructions to all the other people living that if anyone took vengeance on Cain God would take vengence of them sevenfold. This was in an age before human government was instituted. It was in a real sense, to be a libertarian "anarchy". That is in a positive sense an "anarchy".
Here is Cain arguing with God after his murder of his brother Abel and God's warning.
"Now you have driven me out this day from the face of the ground, and from Your face I will be hidden; and I will be a fugitive and a wanderer on the earth, and whoever finds me will kill me.
And Jehovah said to him, Therefore whoever kills Cain, vengenace will be taken on him sevenfold. And Jehovah put a mark on Cain, so that anyone who found him would not strike him." (Genesis 4:14,15)
Soon we see how wicked man seized upon even God's word to rationalize doing an evil deed.
So in the same chapter we see Lamech the man who is first recorded to have taken more than one wife. Lamech murders a young man. He is a murderer like Cain. Yet he twists God's instructions in an evil way to justify his crime.
"And Lamech said to his wives Adah and Zillah, listen to my voice; O wives of Lamech, hearken to my speech;
For I have slain a man for wounding me, Even a young man for striking me.
If Cain is avenged sevenfold, then Lamech seventy-sevenfold." (Genesis 4:23,24)
God gave a command. Not long afterward man even was able to twist his application of the commandment to carrying out his evil work. The outward command of God is inadaquate to cure the hopeless fallen sinfulness of man.
At best it can only be a breaking system arresting somewhat total decline of society. The outward commanment of God cannot do the deeply inward transformation needed in regeneration to come in the new covenant.
The history of both OT and NT show that the alledged law keepers could use the commandments of God for their evil purposes. This would include the commandments given at Mt. Sinai like even the severe one about the stoning of a disrespectfully speaking child.
In painting the picture of why all men have sinned and need salvation Romans says by works of the law NO FLESH will be justified.
"Because out of works of the law no flesh shall be justified before Him; for through the law is the clear knowedge of sin." (Rom. 3:20)
By obeying the law to stone your disprespectfully speaking child according to Exo. 20:12 or Deut. 5:16 one will not be able to justify himself before God.
Ie. "God, I carried out your instruction and had my teenager stoned out back for disrepectingly speaking to his parents. Why am I still found a sinner? By obeying your command aren't I justified?"
If he finds he is not justofied before God and is clever (the first rule of athiesm is to be clever), he may argue -
"But when did doing the commandment to stone the child become evil ?"
It won't work because God's insight into the innermost secret motives not seen by men but laid bare before God are known.
We here today cannot conduct the last judgment. We are not as wise as God.
But there will be a day when all is laid bare in a trillion watt moral light.
"In the day when God judges the secrets of men according to my gospel through Jesus Christ." (Rom. 2:16)
The motive of even supposed adherence to the letter of the ten commandments will be plainly exposed in the light of Christ. We are told "For we account that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law." (Rom. 3:27)
@FMF
I do not accept the presupposition that the commandment shifted.
"When did it shift?" implies that I accept that there was a shift in God's law from good to evil.
The unfolding of the revelation of the depths of man's NEED for salvation from the guilt of sin and the power of sin is not a SHIFT in the nature of the commandment.
Paul writes "What then shall we say? Is the law sin? Absolutely not! But I did not know sin except through the law; for neither did I know coveting, except the law had saids, You shall not covet."
The law of Moses had the function to expose the nature of sin in man.
Paul anticipated the complaint that "When did the law of Moses become sin?"
So then the law is holy, and the commandment holy and righteous and good. Did then that which is good become death to me" Absolutely not! But sin did, that it might be shown to be sin by working out death in me through that which is good, that sin through the commandment might become exceedingly sinful." (Rom. 7:12-13)
The law is holy and the comandment holy and righteous and good.
The commandment did not shift to become evil.
The deeper need of salvstion was exposed. And because man is so stubbornly proud believing he has no need, God took a long time for the exposure to do its work.
Looking again at Roman 7 we see the Apostles diagnosis of man in relation to the law of God.
The law activate and exposes the living evil indwelling nature of God;s enemy.
"But sin, seizing the opportunity through the law, worked out in me coveting of every kind, for without the law sin is dead." (v.8)
The law of Moses activated the rebel infesting man to rise up on general principle to rebel against God. Sin, as a personified evil thing seized the opportunity.
"For sin, seizing the opportunity through the commandment, deceived me and through it killed me." (v.11)
Sin, again a personified thing is exposed as a living evil person infesting man.
It kills - the act of person.
It deceived - the act of a person.
It seized opportunity - the act of a person.
The law of God exposed the evil living thing attached to man as a parasitic person.
The law is good, holy, sppiritual.
The sin nature is activated to rise up against the commandment of God.
Romans 7 proves that it is not the law of God which shifted to become evil.
The law of God stirred up and activated the rebel parisitically infesting man to revolt against God. Sometime the revolt against God may even have the disguise of being adherence to the letter of the law.
@FMF
I already said it could be from the day it was commanded until today.
What does it mean "Christ is the end of the law to everyone who believes"? (Romans 10:4)
I didn't ask you what you believe.
I ask you as best as you can figure out what does it mean -
"Christ is the end of the law to everyone who believes."
@FMF
I did not see your answer.
I looked for it and will go back to see if I what you say I missed.
I see you refuse to accept my answer.
Probably becuase my answer does not embrace your presupposition that the
nature of the commandment shifted.
Refusing to presuppose what you want to presuppose you count as refusing to answer.