Originally posted by robbie carrobieI think the meaning of the passage is perfectly clear. But I also understand your interpretation.
there is no mention of the disciples in the entire passage, your making it up as you go
along FMF. If you are willing to state, yes indeed there is no mention of the disciples of
Christ in the entire passage but i think according to my evaluation, its inferred through
the reference to 'good trees' and 'good fruit', then fine, I can accept that ...[text shortened]... ciples of
Christ (true christians), to help them recognise who they were and in what camp?
Originally posted by robbie carrobiePresumably the message is for present day Christians too, and always has been. So perhaps the passage is intended to help true Christians recognize true Christians, and "false prophets" too.
Indeed why do you think Jesus would be contrasting false prophets with the disciples of
Christ (true christians), to help them recognise who they were and in what camp?
Originally posted by FMFno Jesus contrasts and compares the two, your assertion therefore is, that Christ
Presumably the message is for present day Christians too, and always has been. So perhaps the passage is intended to help true Christians recognize true Christians, and "false prophets" too.
introduces the idea of false prophets and compares and contrasts them with true
christians (not explicitly stated in the passage but inferred) so that his disciples could
recognise that they really were true Christians and not false prophets, this is your and
the jesters understanding.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieWell we simply disagree robbie. As I say I do understand your interpretation, so you can at least take comfort from the fact you've explained your opinion clearly. If I were a Christian and I was looking at you and trying to decide whether you were a false prophet or a true Christian, this little passage would remind me to look at the "fruits" of your professed Christianity.
no Jesus contrasts and compares the two, your assertion therefore is, that Christ
introduces the idea of false prophets and compares and contrasts them with true
christians (not explicitly stated in the passage but inferred) so that his disciples could
recognise that they really were true Christians and not false prophets, this is your and
the jesters understanding.
Originally posted by FMFyou have not explained why Jesus compares and contrasts true Christians and false
Well we simply disagree robbie. As I say I do understand your interpretation, so you can at least take comfort from the fact you've explained your opinion clearly. If I were a Christian and I was looking at you and trying to decide whether you were a false prophet or a true Christian, this little passage would remind me to look at the "fruits" of your professed Christianity.
prophets, presumably its to help the disciples to recognise who they themselves are
and who false prophets are by comparing and contrasting the two, according to your
reasoning if we are to really believe that he was making any reference to the disciples
at all. That is really what you are saying and it finds no substantiation in the passage
(there is no mention of the disciples) and you have provided none other than what you
think might be the case through a tenuous interpretation, which for a buffet king is
paramount to a universal truth.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI see it as a message for present day Christians too and it always has been. The comparison between those who are false and those who are true is implicit, clearly so. But I get it that you don't agree.
you have not explained why Jesus compares and contrasts true Christians and false
prophets, presumably its to help the disciples to recognise who they themselves are
and who false prophets are by comparing and contrasting the two, according to your
reasoning if we are to really believe that he was making any reference to the disciples
at all. ...[text shortened]... e through a tenuous interpretation, which for a buffet king is
paramount to a universal truth.
Originally posted by FMFit might be implicit if the passage actually mentioned christians, disciples, Jesus
I see it as a message for present day Christians too and it always has been. The comparison between those who are false and those who are true is implicit, clearly so. But I get it that you don't agree.
followers etc etc but sadly its bereft.
Originally posted by FMFyes i know what you think, are you willing to state that as the passage does not
I think the meaning of the passage is perfectly clear.
explicitly mention true christians, disciples of Christ or his followers in any capacity and that
what you think is the result of and has its basis in an inference.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIt doesn't need to be explicit. It is absolutely clear that the "good trees" refers to followers of Christ.
yes i know what you think, are you willing to state that as the passage does not
explicitly mention true christians, disciples of Christ or his followers in any capacity that
what you think is the result of and has its basis in an inference.