Originally posted by whodeyWhere is the scriptural proof of this????????
Very true. Jesus knew that he could have gone to Lazarus earlier to stop him from dying, but he chose to let him die so that he could later raise him from the dead.
That said, Jesus I think was crying because of the effects of sin on those whom he loved. Part of it was the pain they were experiencing, but mostly I think he saw their inability to see who he was and what he came to accomplish.
Originally posted by jaywillWell, I can hardly get a word in edgewise. But all the others seem to confirm that when the writer of John wrote "Jesus wept", he meant, "Jesus wept" don't you think? Nobody is saying that it meant Jesus scratched his elbow, for example.
Please refraim from troll enties, comedian jokes, lampoon replies, wisecracks of the attention starved juvenile minded.
Any thoughtful answer I consider contributory. JS537 seems to be an Atheist. And I would like to hear his/her opinion on why Jesus wept.
JS357:
I lack that belief. But I lack belief in the father-god, the son-god, ...[text shortened]... nded to convey was obviously, not conveyed as well as other verses like "Jesus wept."
By the way, this doesn't necessarily meant that Jesus wept. It means the writer of John (one of them, anyway, if there were more) wrote that Jesus wept.
I haven't gone back to the original language, by the way.
You guys can find ways to argue about ANYTHING.
Originally posted by jaywillBut you ask WHY Jesus wept.
Please refraim from troll enties, comedian jokes, lampoon replies, wisecracks of the attention starved juvenile minded.
Any thoughtful answer I consider contributory. JS537 seems to be an Atheist. And I would like to hear his/her opinion on why Jesus wept.
JS357:
I lack that belief. But I lack belief in the father-god, the son-god, ...[text shortened]... nded to convey was obviously, not conveyed as well as other verses like "Jesus wept."
This assumes something I do not know. I don't know that Jesus wept. I was talking about the clarity of the verse. It seems clear to everyone.
I don't take Jesus to be an entirely fictional character, and weeping is something humans do, so Jesus may have wept. We can ascribe reasons. If you think I am being evasive, I'll say the most likely reason, to me, is that he'd lost a friend ('the one he'd loved'😉 and this was driven home when he was told to come and see him. More fruitful though, IMO would be the importance of the verse. I like the comments at:
http://bible.cc/john/11-35.htm
Incidentally, "atheist" carries bad connotations of militancy and hatred in many people's minds, so I don't use that word to describe myself. But I am not a theist, last time I checked.
-Removed-Not at all and you know it. Common sense and the context of the verses there show nothing of the sort that Jaywill is proposing and common sense and the scriptures point out that Jesus and Lazarus were close friends. Jesus simply wept because he was hurt that a close friend of his died. Period..........
Originally posted by galveston75I don't think that was it, because He knew and even delayed His trip there so
Uh, Lazarus was a very dear friend of Jesus, one that he loved and he was sad his friend had died..........
He could raise him from the dead. I've wondered about this before, and His
knowledge of how trapped we are by death could be it, or the fact that we are
trapped by death could have moved Him to tears. I've heard others say it was
that they lacked the faith to bring Larzarus back on their own, but I don't think
that was it. The reason from my point of view is I do not know.
Kelly